Free RBT Practice Exam 2026: 30 Questions

1. During a 15-minute session, Nora records every instance of a learner tapping a help card. Which measurement procedure is the closest match?

A Correct. Frequency recording counts each occurrence during the observation period.
B Duration recording measures how long a response lasts from start to finish.
C Latency recording measures time from a cue to the start of a response.
D Permanent product measures a lasting result rather than each live response.

2. A plan says to score an interval only when humming lasted for the entire interval. Which data rule should the RBT follow?

A Partial interval scores behavior if it occurred at any time in the interval.
B Momentary sampling checks behavior at a specific instant, not across the whole interval.
C Event recording counts each occurrence and does not use interval duration rules.
D Correct. Whole interval requires the behavior to occur for the full interval.

3. An RBT checks a completed worksheet after class and counts correctly solved problems. Which measurement procedure is being used?

A Latency timing measures delay after a cue, not a completed work sample.
B Whole interval requires live observation throughout each interval.
C Correct. Permanent-product recording measures a durable result after behavior occurs.
D Momentary checks score behavior at a scheduled instant, not an artifact.

4. A graph shows correct responses of 4, 4, 5, 7, and 9 across sessions. Which description is most objective?

A Treatment success is an interpretation, not a direct graph description.
B Correct. The values generally rise across sessions, so the trend is increasing.
C Behavior changed is too vague because it does not describe the pattern.
D Motivation is not shown directly by the plotted values.

5. A session note says, "Jules was rude during math." Which replacement is most observable and measurable?

A Correct. The statement describes an observable action and a count.
B Disliked is an inferred feeling rather than a measurable event.
C Refused and hard add interpretation without describing what occurred.
D Acted out and for attention are labels or hypotheses, not observations.

6. During a preference assessment, an RBT presents a ball and a puzzle together, then records which item the learner chooses. What format is shown?

A Free-operant assessment observes engagement with many available items.
B Correct. Paired-stimulus assessment presents two options and records the choice.
C Functional analysis tests behavior-environment relations, not item preference.
D A skills checklist reviews abilities rather than likely reinforcers.

7. A supervisor asks an RBT to record whether Mateo sorts pictures by category during an assessment session. What is the RBT doing?

A Correct. The RBT is participating in assessment of a skill strength or deficit.
B Changing goals is outside the RBT role in this assessment task.
C Writing treatment is not the same as collecting assessment information.
D Functional assessment concerns variables related to behavior, not this skill sample.

8. A team collects ABC data on tantrums during transitions before the BCBA changes the plan. Which assessment component is the RBT supporting?

A A preference check identifies possible reinforcers, not antecedent-behavior-consequence patterns.
B A curriculum probe samples academic or developmental skills.
C Token exchange is a behavior-acquisition procedure, not assessment.
D Correct. ABC recording is a descriptive functional-assessment component.

9. A plan says to give praise immediately when Lina independently asks for help. Which implementation is best?

A Delayed praise weakens the relation between the response and consequence.
B Time-based praise is not contingent on the independent request.
C Correct. Reinforcement should follow the target response contingently and promptly.
D Looking busy is not the target response named in the plan.

10. A coworker wants to post a clinic clip saying, "Our RBTs guarantee fast progress." What response best fits the ethics code?

A Removing names does not make an exaggerated outcome claim acceptable.
B Correct. Ethics Code 2.0 item 1.05 bars false, misleading, or exaggerated service statements.
C Initials can still risk identifying information and do not make the post accurate.
D Tagging an account does not correct a misleading claim about service outcomes.

11. During discrete-trial teaching, which sequence best fits one teaching trial?

A Those actions do not describe the core structure of a discrete teaching trial.
B Guessing is not a planned teaching component.
C Correct. Discrete trials include an antecedent cue, response, consequence, and data.
D Preference checks and breaks may occur, but they are not the trial sequence.

12. An RBT teaches requesting during snack by waiting for interest in crackers, prompting "cracker," and reinforcing the request with crackers. Which teaching style is shown?

A Correct. Naturalistic teaching embeds instruction in an activity with relevant motivation.
B Massed trials repeat structured trials and do not rely on naturally occurring motivation.
C Total task chaining teaches all steps in a sequence each opportunity.
D Punishment reduces behavior; the stem describes teaching a request.

13. A handwashing plan teaches the first step, then adds the next step after mastery while help continues for later steps. Which chaining method is shown?

A Backward chaining begins instruction with the final step.
B Whole interval is a measurement rule, not a teaching sequence.
C Response cost is a behavior-reduction procedure, not chaining.
D Correct. Forward chaining teaches the sequence from the first step forward.

14. A learner says "red" when shown a red card and stays quiet when shown blue or green cards. What skill is the RBT teaching?

A Generalization means responding across appropriate people, settings, or stimuli.
B Correct. Discrimination training teaches responding in the presence of relevant stimuli.
C Maintenance checks whether a learned response continues over time.
D Free operant is an assessment format, not this teaching target.

15. A plan starts with full physical guidance, then moves to a light touch, then a gesture. What procedure is being used?

A Task analysis breaks a skill into steps but does not name the fading sequence.
B Stimulus pairing establishes conditioned reinforcers through association.
C Correct. Prompt fading reduces assistance so control transfers to the cue.
D Baseline recording measures before intervention and does not reduce prompts.

16. A learner greets the therapist in clinic but not the teacher at school. The plan now practices greetings with both adults. What is being targeted?

A Maintenance checks continued performance over time, not new people or settings.
B Punishment procedures reduce behavior and are not shown here.
C Latency measures delay from a cue to a response.
D Correct. Generalization extends performance across relevant people and settings.

17. A learner already ties shoes independently, and the RBT checks the skill once weekly without teaching new steps. Which label fits?

A Acquisition procedures teach new or not-yet-mastered skills.
B Differential reinforcement treats different responses differently.
C Correct. Maintenance checks whether an already learned skill continues.
D Functional assessment examines variables related to behavior.

18. After a holiday session, a caregiver offers an RBT a $40 gift card and says the agency allows only small occasional gifts. What response fits the BACB rule?

A Seasonal timing does not remove the dollar limit or conflict-of-interest risk.
B Correct. Ethics Code 2.0 item 1.11 sets the gift limit at $10 US dollars and says stricter employer rules apply.
C Trading for a larger item increases the value problem instead of resolving it.
D Keeping it quietly conflicts with the ethics rule and the stated agency policy.

19. A learner screams most often after difficult worksheets are presented and stops when work is removed. Which function is most likely?

A Correct. Screaming followed by work removal suggests escape as the hypothesized function.
B Access to tangibles would involve obtaining items or activities.
C Social attention would involve reactions from others maintaining behavior.
D Automatic reinforcement does not depend on task removal by another person.

20. A plan gives noncontingent adult attention every three minutes before attention-maintained disruption usually occurs. What type of strategy is this?

A Extinction withholds the maintaining consequence after behavior occurs.
B Response cost removes a reinforcer after behavior.
C Punishment reduces future behavior through a consequence.
D Correct. The strategy changes conditions before the target behavior occurs.

21. A plan reinforces Jamal for handing over a break card and does not provide escape after yelling. Which procedure is being implemented?

A Correct. FCT teaches a communication response that accesses the relevant outcome.
B Whole-interval recording is a measurement method, not a replacement response plan.
C Paired preference assessment compares items, not communication responses.
D Public statement review is an ethics topic and does not fit the behavior plan.

22. A behavior plan says attention no longer follows repeated pencil tapping, while appropriate requests still receive attention. What is the RBT implementing?

A Shaping reinforces closer approximations to a target response.
B Maintenance checks whether a mastered skill continues over time.
C Generalization concerns transfer across people, settings, stimuli, or responses.
D Correct. Extinction withholds the consequence that previously maintained behavior.

23. After a planned consequence starts, the learner briefly yells more often and uses new phrases. Which secondary effect should the RBT recognize?

A A skill deficit may exist, but the sudden increase is not named by that term.
B A data-entry error concerns recording accuracy, not a behavior pattern.
C Correct. An extinction burst can include a temporary increase or variation.
D A preference shift concerns reinforcer value rather than this response pattern.

24. During a safety event, the written crisis plan says to clear nearby materials and call the supervisor. What should the RBT do?

A Starting a new plan is outside the RBT role during a safety protocol.
B Correct. Crisis procedures are followed as trained and written.
C Waiting alone ignores the steps specified in the crisis plan.
D Trying a new prompt adds an unplanned procedure during an emergency.

25. A teacher tells the RBT that a learner is falling asleep during morning sessions and asks for a program change. What should the RBT do first?

A Correct. RBTs communicate team concerns to the supervisor in a timely manner.
B Changing the teaching program independently is outside the RBT role.
C Waiting for a later supervisor request does not match timely communication.
D Removing demands is a treatment change that requires supervisor direction.

26. Data suddenly drop after a substitute RBT used different prompts for two sessions. Which response best matches the RBT role?

A Waiting shifts responsibility away from timely communication about the data irregularity.
B Correct. Data irregularities and training needs should be brought to the supervisor.
C Deleting session records changes the record instead of reporting the concern.
D Promising quick progress is unsupported and does not seek direction.

27. A caregiver reports a new medication before session, and the learner appears unusually tired. What documentation is best?

A Correct. Report relevant variables in objective, timely language.
B The RBT cannot conclude causation from the session observation.
C Regressed is broad and does not report the specific variable.
D Medication advice is outside the RBT role and is not documentation.

28. Which session note entry is most objective?

A Manipulative is a judgment and does not describe the observable action.
B Wanted attention is a hypothesis about function, not a session fact.
C Bad day is subjective and lacks measurable detail.
D Correct. The note states the behavior and count in observable terms.

29. At a clinic, an RBT is assigned a feeding goal that they have not been trained to run or demonstrated with feedback. What should happen before the session?

A Running it first reverses the competence requirement in the ethics standard.
B Caregiver modeling does not replace required supervisor-confirmed competence.
C Correct. Ethics Code 2.0 item 1.06 says RBTs provide services only after supervisor-confirmed competence.
D Skipping all programs is broader than reporting the specific untrained assignment.

30. A parent in the waiting room asks whether another child is "finally talking now." What response best fits the RBT role?

A Comparing goals discloses information about a different client.
B Correct. Ethics Code 2.0 items 2.08 and 2.10 require protecting and limiting discussion of confidential client information.
C Broad progress details still disclose another client's private information.
D Lowering voices does not make the disclosure appropriate.